Sunday, May 31, 2009

8 Sivan (Nasso)

Rashi on Bamidbar5,12 says that the reason the halachos of Sotah are written right after the halachos of Kehuna is because Hashem says "If don't bring Matnos Kehuna to the Kohen I swear that you will need to bring your wife to the kohen because she'll be a Sotah. Why,she has Bechirah and she won't sin? How does your doing an Aveirah force your wife to do an Aveirah of adultery (or at least Yichud, which is assur Mideoraysa here since she's married) that Hashem SWEARS that you will have to bring her to the Kohen as a Sotah?

5 Sivan

Pesachim68b-By all holidays there's a machlokes if need "lachem" (to enjoy yourself with food etc.)But by Shavuos all agree need"lachem".Why?On Shavuos we were mekabel the Torah,so should be the most spiritual,not most physical, so why is Shavuos the holiday that everyone agrees need "lachem"?
Chag Sameach

Wednesday, May 27, 2009

4 Sivan

Why does Rus 1,22 say that Rus is the one "who returned from the fields of Moav"? Rus 1,6+14+19 make it very clear she returned from the fields of Moav!

3 Sivan (Shavuos)

How can Naomi tell Rus (Rus1,15) Orpa went back to her god,follow her?Its usur for goyim to do Avoda Zara so how can Naomi tell her to!?

2 Iyar (Shavuos)

If Boaz told Rus (Rus 2,8) "stay close to my MAIDENS...",why does Rus say (Rus 2,21) "he even said to me stay close to my YOUNG MEN"?

1 Sivan (Shavuos)

Why do we need all the promises to the Avos, going down to Mitzraim, and everything (like Beraishis17,7) if the Goyim were offered Torah without all that?

Friday, May 22, 2009

28 Nissan (Bamidbar)

What does Rashi (Bamidbar 1,1) mean that when Hashem came to rest his Shechina on Bnei Yisrael he counted them if Hashem came to rest his Shechina on them on Rosh Chodesh Nissan but didn't count them until a month later on Rosh Chodesh Iyar? Clearly he didn't count them until a month after he rested his Shechina on them, so what is Rashi talking about?

27 Iyar (Shavuos)

Yerushalmi Rosh Hashana Perek 4, Halacha 8 says that the sair of Shavuos is only one not called chatas(Bamidbar28,30) because Hashem considers it as if never sinned on Shavuos because accept Torah.But if so why does Vayikra 23,19 call Shavuos' sair a chatas? If Hashem considers it as if we never sinned on Shavuos, why do we need a chatas in Shemini and not in Pinchas?

Wednesday, May 20, 2009

19 Iyar (Shavuos)

Why in Rus 1,16 does Rus need to tell Naomi that's she's not going "Liazveich lashuv meiacharayich" (to leave you, to turn back from you)?No need for Rus to repeat same the thing twice!

18 Iyar (Shavuos)

Yevamos 48b proves that the reason geirim have it so hard is because they are being punished for not converting earlier from the fact that Boaz tells Rus (Rus 2,12) "Hashem should reward you actions and your payment should be full from Hashem, the God of Israel, under whose wings you came to seek refuge". In other words since you hurried to seek refuge under His wings and convert your payment will be full (and you won't be punished and lose from you're reward for not converting immediately). The problem is that she didn't convert (Rashi 1,12) until after she had been married to Machlon for 10 years so apparently she didn't hurry to convert at all, so why does the Gemarah say that it was immediate?

Monday, May 18, 2009

24 Iyar (Bamidbar)

Bamidbar 2,3 says that machaneh yehudah camped "keidma mizracha" and Rashi explains that keidma (forward) must mean east because achor is west. If kedem means East why do we need to then write mizrach too? They both mean east so there's no reason to write east twice ("east, east")!

Sunday, May 17, 2009

23 Iyar (Bamidbar)

Rashi on Shemos 30,12 says that its forbidden to count people normally because it causes plague. If so in our parsha it makes sense that the regular Jews were counted using shekalim, but why weren't the Levi'im also counted using shekalim? It should be forbidden to count them normally too!

Friday, May 15, 2009

21 Iyar

The Midrash Rabah on Vayikra 37,2 explains that Moshe's reward for going out to the people working in Mitzraim who were doing jobs that were unsuitable for them (men doing womans work, old people doing young people's work, and vice versa) and giving them jobs that were suitable for them, is that he gets to explain Erchin (about when people decide to donate someone's value) to the Jews. Why is that a fitting reward above anything else? Isn't that kind of random? Also doesn't Moshe teach the whole Torah, so why wouldn't he have taught this too?

20 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

Why do we need blessings both to be satiated with little food(Vaykra26,5Rashi)and for excess of food(Vayikra26,10) ? Once satiated with little don't need plenty of food?

19 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosei)

Why is Vayikra25,2written when you enter E"Y the land will rest?First Kiddushin37b-Shmitta only starts after7yrs conquering+7dividing,so not when come in?Also first need 6yrs work then Shmitta,so why not write work land 1st?

Tuesday, May 12, 2009

18 Iyar (Lag Be'omer)

The Rema seems to hold that we celebrate Lag Be'omer because that is when R' Akiva's students stopped dying. How does that make sense? They stopping dying for the obvious reason that every last one of them died (see Yevamos 62b -"world was desolate until R' Akiva got the 5 new talmidim"). How can we celebrate that they were all finished off?

Monday, May 11, 2009

17 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

Why does Vayikra 27, 1-7, when discussing people's Erech, seemingly not go in a logical order? It doesn't go in order of age (but rather the order of ages is 20-60,5-20, 30 days-5, 60+) or in order of value (instead it's: 50, 30, 20, 10, 5, 3, 15,10). What is the logic of that order?

Sunday, May 10, 2009

16 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

The Toras Kohanim says that Vayikra 25, 48-49 is written in the order of relatives who redeem someone who is sold to a Gentile as a slave, the closer relatives come first and than the more distant relatives. Why is the slave himself listed last in the list of who's considered the closest relative. Seemingly he's the closest relative to himself!

14 Iyar (Emor)

Rashi on Vayikra 23,22 says anyone who gives Leket, Shikcha, and Peah is as if they built the Bais Hamikdash and brought korbanos in it. What is the relevance between Leket, Shikcha, and Peah and building the Bais Hamikdash? Also why specifically them? We don't find this by other mitzvos!

Thursday, May 7, 2009

Alert

The last couple hebrew dates over the last few days have been off. Our appologies. To let us know about other issues call 7862397265.

6 Iyar (Emor & Sefira)

The Torah says start counting Sefiras Ha'omer (Vayikra 23,15) "Mimacharas Hashabbos" (after shabbos) and Rashi says it means after the first day of Yom Tov of Pesach because Yom Tov is often called Shabbos. Why doesn't the Torah say the actual date that we start counting Sefiras Ha'omer is the second day of Pesach or the 16th of Nissan? There's no gain of calling it after the Shabbos, all it does is give room for people to make the mistake of thinking it actually means after Shabbos (as the Tziddukim did), so why not say the real date?

Wednesday, May 6, 2009

13 Iyar (Emor)

Once Vayikra 21,13 says "Vihu Isha bivsulehah yikach" (and he should marry a woman in her virginity) and the first half of verse 14 excluded everyone else by writing "Almana ugrusha vachalah zona es aileh lo yikach" (a widow and a divorcee and a chalalah and a harlot, these he shouldn't take),why do we need verse 14 to continue with "Ki im besulah mayamav yikach isha" (but a virgin from his nation he should take as a wife)? Don't we already know quite clearly that he has to marry a besulah from the last passuk and a half? Why are we repeating it again?

Tuesday, May 5, 2009

11 Iyar (Emor)

Vayikra 21,6 says "Kedoshim yihyu..." (they shall be holy...) and Rashi explains that means even against their will, have to make sure they're holy. So why do we need another drasha two pesukim later (vs. 8) on the word "Vikidashto..." (and you should sanctify him...) Rashi says it means even against their will for example if he doesn't want to divorce his wife who's unfit to marry a Kohen we force him to. Why on Earth do we need two drashas to tell us the same thing especially when the first one was two pesukim ago?

Monday, May 4, 2009

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Why does Vayikra 21,2 call a wife "she'ero hakrova aluv" (his relative that's close to him) and not just simply write "ishto" (his wife)? Also how could it mean wife, because between all the other relatives it writes "and" but between this and mother it doesn't which would imply that its the introduction to the list of relatives, not one of them?

9 Iyar (Sefira)

Why does Yevamos 62b say "R' Akiva had 12,000 pairs of students...and they all died at one time...from Pesach to Shavuos". Why does the Gemarah call it 12,000 pairs and not 24,000?

Friday, May 1, 2009

7 Iyar (Acharei Mos-Kedoshim)

Rashi on Vayikra 17,4 says that someone who slaughters a korban outside the Beis Hamikdash is as if he killed a person. What does that mean? Why on Earth would that be, that someone who does shechutei chutz is as if they killed someone?

For those that get the kasha as an sms text the verse was accidentally written as 16,4. This is incorrect. Our apologies.