Friday, December 25, 2009

Vayigash

How is (45,27Rashi) sending Agalos (wagons) clear proof that Yosef remembers the last thing he learned with Yaakov was Egla Arufa? Even Pharaoh (45,19+21) said to send wagons so clearly that's just the normal thing to do!

Wednesday, December 23, 2009

Vayigash

How did Yosef (45,12-Rashi) prove his identity based on the fact that he knows Lashon Hakodesh? If(42,23Rashi) the interpreter knew it, so could he! That's not solid proof that he's Yosef if its a language others know!

Monday, December 21, 2009

Vayigash

Once Yehuda said (44,16) "we'll ALL be slaves" ,why does he (44,18) get upset at Yosef for responding (44,17) only Binyamin will be a slave?

Friday, December 18, 2009

Miketz

What was Reuven thinking when he (42,37) told Yaakov to kill his two sons if he isn't successful returning Binyamin? Why on Earth did he think that Yaakov would want to kill them? First of all they're Yaakov's grandsons and also Yaakov has no interest in killing anybody (even someone coming to kill him see 32,8 plus Rashi)!

Monday, December 14, 2009

Chanukah

In Al Hanisim, why'd they light the Beis Hamikdash's Menora in the Chatzros Kodshecha? The Menora isn't in the Chatzer! Also, why does it say ChatzrOS in plural? Even if the Menorah was in the courtyard for some reason it would only be in one courtyard!

Friday, December 11, 2009

Vayeishev

Baal Haturim37,1-"Eretz Megurei Aviv B'eretz Canaan"is refering to Chevron. Why not just say Chevron? Its much shorter!

Wednesday, December 9, 2009

Chanukah

Why do we only commemorate the oil lasting eight days and not that we were able to keep the Mitzvos because the Greeks were defeated? Seemingly that should be much more important!

Monday, December 7, 2009

Vayeishev

By Yosef's 1st dream (37,5) why after he tells his brothers the dream (and they hate him even more because of it), does he say (37,6) listen to my dream? He just told it to them!

Friday, December 4, 2009

Vayishlach

Why do (33,8-Rashi) the Malachim Yaakov sends to Eisav beat up Eisav's men? That contradicts the whole message they were sent to deliver- that Yaakov respects Eisav and is submissive to him!

Vayishlach

35,3-Yaakov says to his family and everyone with him to A)Get rid of idols B)CHANGE THEIR CLOTHES. So why do they (35,4) A)Get rid of idols B)REMOVE EARINGS? Yaakov told them to change their clothes not to remove their earings!

Thursday, December 3, 2009

Vayishlach

32,27Rashi-Eisav's Malach had to leave to sing Shiros to Hashem because just became daytime. But Chagiga12b-Malachim only say Shira at night; so why did he need to go sing because it became daytime?

Tuesday, December 1, 2009

Vayishlach

Ba'al Haturim 34,1- Yaakov is punished with story of Shechem and Dina, for preventing Dina from marrying Eisav by hiding her in a box when Eisav comes. But not wanting to marry Eisav is a good thing! Rashi29,17- The Torah praises Leah for that?

Sunday, November 29, 2009

Vayishlach

32,19-Yaakov tells the 1st group of malachim that he sends with presents for Eisav to tell him A)The presents are your servant, Yaakov's B)They are a present for Eisav C)Yaakov is behind us. 32,20-Yaakov tells the rest of the groups exactly what he told the first group to tell Eisav. 32,21- "Also say that Yaakov is behind us".Why does Yaakov randomly repeat to say that Yaakov is behind us? He just said that! Also, why does Yaakov call this an additional point?

Friday, November 27, 2009

Vayeitzei

29,2-Yaakov saw a big rock on the well. Why does Yaakov(29,7) tell the shepherds to give water to the sheep and the they need to reply (29,8) "we can't,there's a big rock blocking the well"? Yaakov saw the rock and he should've known they can't give water to the sheep!

Thursday, November 26, 2009

Vayeitzei

How call Leah have the chutzpah to tell Rachel (30,15) "Isn't it enough that you took my husband..."? She's only married because (29,25 Rashi) Rachel was nice enough to give her the Simanim (Yaakov realized that Lavan would try to trick him so he gave Rachel a sign to prove it was her and Rachel gave it to Leah to prevent her from being embarrassed)!

Tuesday, November 24, 2009

Vayeitzei

In 28,11 Rashis,why does Hashem do Kfitzas Haderech so fast that He has to set the sun early to ensure that Yaakov sleeps there? Just do less Kefitzas Haderech and Yaakov will get there at night anyway, so Hashem won't need to make an unnecessary miracle!

Vayeizei

What does Yaakov mean (29,12 Rashi) "I'm Lavan's equal in trickery"? Lavan successfully tricks Yaakov every time!

Sunday, November 22, 2009

Vayeizai

Once 29,32 says the reason why Leah called Reuven Reuven, why does Rashi there need to give us a different reason? The Torah's reason should be enough! Rashi doesn't even phrase it as the Torah gives us a different reason, the way he makes it sound is that the Rabbanan are giving us the only reason.

Thursday, November 19, 2009

Toldos

Why does the Torah (25,19+Rashi) wait until Yitzchak is 60 to prove his father is Avraham,not Avimelech? The Torah should do that when he's born!

Monday, November 16, 2009

Toldos

Why's the Aveira that the Torah brings (25,34+Rashi) to show Eisav's wickedness his disgracing the Bechora? Bava Basra16b-That day did Avoda Zara+Aishes Ish+Kofer Betchiyas Hameisim+Kofer Be'ikar which are all much worse!

Friday, November 13, 2009

Chayei Sara

Bava Metziya87a-until Avraham in 24,1 there was no such thing as "ziknah" (elderliness). But18,11(et al.)says-Avraham&Sara were"zikainim" so clearly there was elderliness?

Chayei Sara

Why do we need to say in both 23,17&23,20that the field&the cave became Avraham's? Even worse,the 2nd time is after Sara's burial so its clearly already Avraham's!?

Wednesday, November 11, 2009

Chayei Sara-correction

Yes I know it should be Lavan, not Lot.

Chayei Sara

If (24,31) Lot cleaned out his house from Avoda Zara for Eliezer (because he knows Eliezer can't stand it) why does he(Chizkuni-24,32) say Eliezer must wash his feet off from Avoda Zara (since Lot didnt want any Avoda Zara other than his own in his house)? He knows that Eliezer hates Avoda Zara and would never worship the dust on his feet!

Monday, November 9, 2009

Chayei Sara

23,1-Rashi-When Sara was 20 she was as beautiful as a 7year old. What's the praise? A 20yr old looks better than a 7 year old! Also, this is the Torah "eulogizing" Sara. Couldn't the Torah have found something nicer than that? What's the big deal if she was beautiful?

Friday, November 6, 2009

Vayeira

Why does Avraham(18,3-Rashi-2nd pshat) ask Hashem not to leave only after(18,2)he ran to greet the guests and bowed down to them? Avraham should have to ask Hashem first not to leave and only afterwards run to greet the guests!

Wednesday, November 4, 2009

Vayeira

Why does Hashem need to send a Malach to tell Avraham that Sara wil have a son?Hashem just told him 3 days earlier in17,16+19! It can't either be so Sara finds out because then the logical thing to do would be to have Avraham pass on the message to Sara, and then she probably would have believed him as he is a Navi Muchzak(Established)!

Tuesday, November 3, 2009

Vayeira

How could people say that (21,7-Rashi) Sara never gave birth?She must have looked very clearly pregnant for many months already!

Monday, November 2, 2009

Vayeira

(18,2)Why'd the Malach destroying Sedom(Gavriel)bother coming to Avraham?His mission has nothing to do with visiting Avraham!

Sunday, November 1, 2009

Vayeira

What's Rashi mean(18,11)Sara stopped having Dam Nida?Sara just(18,8Rashi)became a Nida(&made the bread Tamei)!

Thursday, October 29, 2009

Lech Lecha

Avram tells Sarai12,13" please say you are my sister so they'll be good to me(Rashi-give me presents)for your sake and let me live because of you"Why is the first thing Avram tells her"I'll get presents"?Forget that,the main thing is"I'm gonna live"!

Lech Lecha

Tanchuma-Vayeira3-Before Avraham got a Bris he asked three friends if he should and two of them said no. Why'd Avraham ask them what to do? If Hashem said he must get a Bris,he must! Also,what's the point of asking them if didn't follow their consensus anyway?

Tuesday, October 27, 2009

Lech Lecha

Why'd Avram take money from Pharaoh(12,16)but refuse to take money from Melech Sedom(14,22-23)so he won't say he made Avram rich? Why are they any different?

Monday, October 26, 2009

Lech Lecha

Avraham kept the whole Torah so why'd he give himself a Bris on Yom Kippur(Kli Yakar17,26).Its only Mutar to do that(Shabas132a)if its the 8th day?
JB

Friday, October 23, 2009

Noach

If(6,11Rashi)Dor HaMabul was doing Avoda Zara&Znus,why was the(6,13Rashi)Gzar Din only for Gezel?Others are much worse!

Wednesday, October 21, 2009

Noach

Why does the Torah repeat Noach had 3 sons named Hem, Cham, and Yefes in 6,10 if just said that 11 pesukim earlier in 5,32?

Noach

Noach spent 120yrs. building the Teiva(Rashi6,14)so what does Rashi7,7mean Noach didn't believe the Mabul would come? Clearly he did if he spent so long building the Teiva!

Sunday, October 18, 2009

Noach

9,5-Rashi-Hashem gives an Isur Lav2animals that can't kill Humans. A-Animals don't have bechira? B-What's the point of giving them a Lav?

Thursday, October 15, 2009

Beraishis

Why repeat in1,29that all fruits&vegis have seeds if already in1,11?Also,if neccessary, why say it by only ppl&not by animals in1,30?

Beraishis

How could Earth not listen2 Hashem to make the tree taste like fruit(Braishis1,11-Rashi)?It wasn't given Bechira?

Beraishis

In honor of new year, I'm starting sending kashas again. For now it will generally just be a forwarding of the text message.

Braishis1,1-Rashi-Reason Torah doesn't start from"Hachodesh"(Shemos12,1)is so we can explain why got Israel when Goyim protest.But90%won't help4that at all?Also why would they listen2Torah that bc H'created,can give2whoever?

Monday, September 7, 2009

18 Elul (Nitzavim- Vayelech)

29,10"From woodchoppers to water-carriers".2include every1it should list2very different groups,not2simaler ones!?

16 Elul (Ki Savo)

27,12.-one of the 6shvatim ON Har Grizim is Levi.What's Rashi(on that passuk) mean there are 6on1mtn and 6on the other&Levi is DOWN BTWN them.Pasuk says Levi was ON THE MOUNTAIN?

14 Elul (Ki Savo)

Rashi28,6"Baruch Ata Bivoecha,Ubaruch Ata Bitzaisecha"-means just like came into world without sin so2leave w/o sin.But what about28,19"Arur Ata Bivoecha... Bitzaisecha"?Should be opposite but didn't enter world,with sins!

12 Elul (Ki Savo)

Alert kasha When thank Hashem4not letting Lavan kill us(26,5+Rashi)(Arami Oved Avi)why say that he did kill us(just bc punish goyim4intent still here trying2thank Hashem4saving us so its stupid2write that we weren't saved?

13 Elul (Ki Savo)

Why does 1bringing Bikurim tell Kohen(26,3)I came today 2Hashem YOUR god(&not H'my god)[like the pesach rasha]?

Sunday, July 5, 2009

13 Tamuz (Pinchas)

Why do we wait until Parshas Pinchas(25,14-15){"and the name of the slain isralite man...was Zimri ben Salu...and the name of the slain midianite woman was Kozbi bas Tzur} to say the names of the "jewish man" and "Midianite woman" that Pinchas killed in Parshas Balak?

Friday, July 3, 2009

9 Tamuz (Chukas-Balak)

Sanhedrin63a-Rashi-Ba'al Peor isn't worshiped by bowing to it so why does Rashi-Bamidbar25,2say Bnos Moav told Jews to bow to Ba'al Peor? Ba'al Peor isn't served by bowing down to it so why would the Bnos Moav try to get the Jews to do that?

Friday, June 26, 2009

3 Sivan (Korach)

Rashi Bamidbar 16,7 says that Moshe said that only one from korach and his followers will live and korach misunderstood and thought that he would be that one that lives because he saw all the great people who would come from him. However he made a mistake because actually Moshe saw that it was his sons who would do Teshuva and were therefore saved and the great people that came from him were able to come from him through his sons. How does it make any sense that Moshe says ONE person would be saved and Moshe saw that Korach's SONS (plural) would be saved? If Moshe saw that his sons would be saved why did he only say that one person would be saved?
It doesn't make sense to answer that that person who would be saved was Aharon (and the one person who would be saved also includes the ability for it to be Aharon and Moshe wasn't just talking about one person from Korach and his followers) and Korach's sons weren't included in the fight at all, because then you would have to say that Korach figured that there was some reason that Korach would hold that for some reason Aharon deserved to die. However there is no logic to such a reason and Korach never says anything remotely simaler to that which would even imply he thinks anything at all like that.

Wednesday, June 24, 2009

2 Sivan (Korach)

Why does Moshe say (Bamidbar 16,29) if Korach and his followers aren't killed miraculously then he's a fake Navi? Maybe they'll do Teshuva and live! How can he risk his whole credibility on the fact that they won't do Teshuva. (We see doing Teshuva helps because Korach's sons did Teshuva and weren't killed.)

Tuesday, June 23, 2009

30 Sivan

To prove that Aharon should be the Kohen Gadol, not Korach, Hashem had Moshe (Bamidbar 17,17-24) write Aharon's name on Mateh Levi and every other shevet had their own Mateh and then only Mateh Levi's blossomed. How does that show Korach shouldn't be Kohen Gadol? Korach was from Shevet Levi! Who says Korach wasn't also holy enough? There was no way for it to blossom specifically for Korach so maybe it was blossoming for him! We should have written Aharon's name on a seperate staff than the rest of Shevet Levi and then when only Aharon's staff would blossom, and not Levi's, we'd know that only Aharon and his descendants could be Kohen Gadol!

Tuesday, June 9, 2009

17 Sivan (Beha'alosecha)

Why do the Jews say(Bamidbar 11,5)-"Zacharnu es hadaga asher nochal bimitzraim"? Nochal is future tense, they're remembering the past! Also even if we could answer that, why wouldn't the chumash just write it simply in past tense?

16 Sivan (Beha'alosecha)

Rashi (Bamidbar9,1) explains why Sefer Bamidbar starts from 1Iyar and not earlier from Pesach in this weeks parsha, but why doesn't Sefer Bamidbar start even earlier from Naso(1Nissan)?

15 Sivan (Beha'alosecha)

Bamidbar11,5 Rashi-The Jews want to get food like they got in Egypt without needing to do mitzvos. Isn't doing mitzvos easier than having to be slaves in order to get food? Why would they rather that?

13 Sivan

The Boel explodes when the Sota does(5,22)so why does the Sota get warned so many times while the man doesn't get a single warning? He just explodes when she does. That's not fair!

12 Sivan (Sivan)

Alert kasha Why is the Nazir called a Nazir even after he's done with Nezirus in Bamidbar6,20"Viachar yishteh HANAZIR yayin"?

11 Iyar (Nasso)

Brachos20b-although (Devarim10,17) Hashem doesn't favor or take bribes(Bamidbar6,24)Hashem favors the Jews because they bentch on a Kzais even though Medeoraysa only have to bentch on a Kebaya. But the Passuk says that Hashem never favors or takes bribes! Can't make excuses! Hashem even admits to favoring us which is exactly what the passuk says Hashem never does!

10 Nissan (Nasso)

Why is a Sotah rewarded (Bamidbar 5,28+Rashi) just because she wasn't mezaneh?She still did the avaira of yichud which is assur mideoraysa here because she's married! Why isn't she choteh niscar? Also she didn't actually do anything to get rewarded! We can't just reward her for doing an avairah!

9 Sivan (Nasso)

Bamidbar 5,20-Rashi-"Viat ki satis tachas ishaich" ki here means "if" , not "because",because if we know 100% that she did adultry she wouldn't drink the Sotah waters. Why not just write"im"? Ki just confuses,so why write it when we can write "Im" with no problems?

Sunday, May 31, 2009

8 Sivan (Nasso)

Rashi on Bamidbar5,12 says that the reason the halachos of Sotah are written right after the halachos of Kehuna is because Hashem says "If don't bring Matnos Kehuna to the Kohen I swear that you will need to bring your wife to the kohen because she'll be a Sotah. Why,she has Bechirah and she won't sin? How does your doing an Aveirah force your wife to do an Aveirah of adultery (or at least Yichud, which is assur Mideoraysa here since she's married) that Hashem SWEARS that you will have to bring her to the Kohen as a Sotah?

5 Sivan

Pesachim68b-By all holidays there's a machlokes if need "lachem" (to enjoy yourself with food etc.)But by Shavuos all agree need"lachem".Why?On Shavuos we were mekabel the Torah,so should be the most spiritual,not most physical, so why is Shavuos the holiday that everyone agrees need "lachem"?
Chag Sameach

Wednesday, May 27, 2009

4 Sivan

Why does Rus 1,22 say that Rus is the one "who returned from the fields of Moav"? Rus 1,6+14+19 make it very clear she returned from the fields of Moav!

3 Sivan (Shavuos)

How can Naomi tell Rus (Rus1,15) Orpa went back to her god,follow her?Its usur for goyim to do Avoda Zara so how can Naomi tell her to!?

2 Iyar (Shavuos)

If Boaz told Rus (Rus 2,8) "stay close to my MAIDENS...",why does Rus say (Rus 2,21) "he even said to me stay close to my YOUNG MEN"?

1 Sivan (Shavuos)

Why do we need all the promises to the Avos, going down to Mitzraim, and everything (like Beraishis17,7) if the Goyim were offered Torah without all that?

Friday, May 22, 2009

28 Nissan (Bamidbar)

What does Rashi (Bamidbar 1,1) mean that when Hashem came to rest his Shechina on Bnei Yisrael he counted them if Hashem came to rest his Shechina on them on Rosh Chodesh Nissan but didn't count them until a month later on Rosh Chodesh Iyar? Clearly he didn't count them until a month after he rested his Shechina on them, so what is Rashi talking about?

27 Iyar (Shavuos)

Yerushalmi Rosh Hashana Perek 4, Halacha 8 says that the sair of Shavuos is only one not called chatas(Bamidbar28,30) because Hashem considers it as if never sinned on Shavuos because accept Torah.But if so why does Vayikra 23,19 call Shavuos' sair a chatas? If Hashem considers it as if we never sinned on Shavuos, why do we need a chatas in Shemini and not in Pinchas?

Wednesday, May 20, 2009

19 Iyar (Shavuos)

Why in Rus 1,16 does Rus need to tell Naomi that's she's not going "Liazveich lashuv meiacharayich" (to leave you, to turn back from you)?No need for Rus to repeat same the thing twice!

18 Iyar (Shavuos)

Yevamos 48b proves that the reason geirim have it so hard is because they are being punished for not converting earlier from the fact that Boaz tells Rus (Rus 2,12) "Hashem should reward you actions and your payment should be full from Hashem, the God of Israel, under whose wings you came to seek refuge". In other words since you hurried to seek refuge under His wings and convert your payment will be full (and you won't be punished and lose from you're reward for not converting immediately). The problem is that she didn't convert (Rashi 1,12) until after she had been married to Machlon for 10 years so apparently she didn't hurry to convert at all, so why does the Gemarah say that it was immediate?

Monday, May 18, 2009

24 Iyar (Bamidbar)

Bamidbar 2,3 says that machaneh yehudah camped "keidma mizracha" and Rashi explains that keidma (forward) must mean east because achor is west. If kedem means East why do we need to then write mizrach too? They both mean east so there's no reason to write east twice ("east, east")!

Sunday, May 17, 2009

23 Iyar (Bamidbar)

Rashi on Shemos 30,12 says that its forbidden to count people normally because it causes plague. If so in our parsha it makes sense that the regular Jews were counted using shekalim, but why weren't the Levi'im also counted using shekalim? It should be forbidden to count them normally too!

Friday, May 15, 2009

21 Iyar

The Midrash Rabah on Vayikra 37,2 explains that Moshe's reward for going out to the people working in Mitzraim who were doing jobs that were unsuitable for them (men doing womans work, old people doing young people's work, and vice versa) and giving them jobs that were suitable for them, is that he gets to explain Erchin (about when people decide to donate someone's value) to the Jews. Why is that a fitting reward above anything else? Isn't that kind of random? Also doesn't Moshe teach the whole Torah, so why wouldn't he have taught this too?

20 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

Why do we need blessings both to be satiated with little food(Vaykra26,5Rashi)and for excess of food(Vayikra26,10) ? Once satiated with little don't need plenty of food?

19 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosei)

Why is Vayikra25,2written when you enter E"Y the land will rest?First Kiddushin37b-Shmitta only starts after7yrs conquering+7dividing,so not when come in?Also first need 6yrs work then Shmitta,so why not write work land 1st?

Tuesday, May 12, 2009

18 Iyar (Lag Be'omer)

The Rema seems to hold that we celebrate Lag Be'omer because that is when R' Akiva's students stopped dying. How does that make sense? They stopping dying for the obvious reason that every last one of them died (see Yevamos 62b -"world was desolate until R' Akiva got the 5 new talmidim"). How can we celebrate that they were all finished off?

Monday, May 11, 2009

17 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

Why does Vayikra 27, 1-7, when discussing people's Erech, seemingly not go in a logical order? It doesn't go in order of age (but rather the order of ages is 20-60,5-20, 30 days-5, 60+) or in order of value (instead it's: 50, 30, 20, 10, 5, 3, 15,10). What is the logic of that order?

Sunday, May 10, 2009

16 Iyar (Behar-Bechukosai)

The Toras Kohanim says that Vayikra 25, 48-49 is written in the order of relatives who redeem someone who is sold to a Gentile as a slave, the closer relatives come first and than the more distant relatives. Why is the slave himself listed last in the list of who's considered the closest relative. Seemingly he's the closest relative to himself!

14 Iyar (Emor)

Rashi on Vayikra 23,22 says anyone who gives Leket, Shikcha, and Peah is as if they built the Bais Hamikdash and brought korbanos in it. What is the relevance between Leket, Shikcha, and Peah and building the Bais Hamikdash? Also why specifically them? We don't find this by other mitzvos!

Thursday, May 7, 2009

Alert

The last couple hebrew dates over the last few days have been off. Our appologies. To let us know about other issues call 7862397265.

6 Iyar (Emor & Sefira)

The Torah says start counting Sefiras Ha'omer (Vayikra 23,15) "Mimacharas Hashabbos" (after shabbos) and Rashi says it means after the first day of Yom Tov of Pesach because Yom Tov is often called Shabbos. Why doesn't the Torah say the actual date that we start counting Sefiras Ha'omer is the second day of Pesach or the 16th of Nissan? There's no gain of calling it after the Shabbos, all it does is give room for people to make the mistake of thinking it actually means after Shabbos (as the Tziddukim did), so why not say the real date?

Wednesday, May 6, 2009

13 Iyar (Emor)

Once Vayikra 21,13 says "Vihu Isha bivsulehah yikach" (and he should marry a woman in her virginity) and the first half of verse 14 excluded everyone else by writing "Almana ugrusha vachalah zona es aileh lo yikach" (a widow and a divorcee and a chalalah and a harlot, these he shouldn't take),why do we need verse 14 to continue with "Ki im besulah mayamav yikach isha" (but a virgin from his nation he should take as a wife)? Don't we already know quite clearly that he has to marry a besulah from the last passuk and a half? Why are we repeating it again?

Tuesday, May 5, 2009

11 Iyar (Emor)

Vayikra 21,6 says "Kedoshim yihyu..." (they shall be holy...) and Rashi explains that means even against their will, have to make sure they're holy. So why do we need another drasha two pesukim later (vs. 8) on the word "Vikidashto..." (and you should sanctify him...) Rashi says it means even against their will for example if he doesn't want to divorce his wife who's unfit to marry a Kohen we force him to. Why on Earth do we need two drashas to tell us the same thing especially when the first one was two pesukim ago?

Monday, May 4, 2009

Multimedia message

Why does Vayikra 21,2 call a wife "she'ero hakrova aluv" (his relative that's close to him) and not just simply write "ishto" (his wife)? Also how could it mean wife, because between all the other relatives it writes "and" but between this and mother it doesn't which would imply that its the introduction to the list of relatives, not one of them?

9 Iyar (Sefira)

Why does Yevamos 62b say "R' Akiva had 12,000 pairs of students...and they all died at one time...from Pesach to Shavuos". Why does the Gemarah call it 12,000 pairs and not 24,000?

Friday, May 1, 2009

7 Iyar (Acharei Mos-Kedoshim)

Rashi on Vayikra 17,4 says that someone who slaughters a korban outside the Beis Hamikdash is as if he killed a person. What does that mean? Why on Earth would that be, that someone who does shechutei chutz is as if they killed someone?

For those that get the kasha as an sms text the verse was accidentally written as 16,4. This is incorrect. Our apologies.

Thursday, April 30, 2009

Acharei Mos-Kedoshim (6 Iyar)

Yoma 67b says that the sair lazazel is called that because it comes to atone for the sins of Uza and Aziel. They were the Bnei Elokim that were mezaneh with the human women, so the azazel is atoning for licentiousness. The problem is that Vayikra 16,21 says it was coming for "Kol pishahem Licol Chatosum" (for all inquity for all sins) so how can the Gemara say it was specifically for licentiousness?

Acharei Mos-Kedoshim (5 Iyar)

Why does Vayikra 16,34 need to tell us "Lichaper al Bnei Yisrael mikol chatosum achas bashana" (to atone for Bnei Yisrael for all their sins once a year)? We just said 5 pesukim ago "Bachodesh hashvi'I beasur lachodesh" (on the 7th month on the 10th of the month) so I know very clearly it was once a year!

Tuesday, April 28, 2009

4 Nissan (Sefira)

Why were R' Akiva's students specifically killed during Sefira? Seemingly there is no more relevance of "shelo nahagu kavod ze bazeh" (they didn't act with honor to each other) to Sefira over any other time of the year, so why then? It can't be coincidental!

Monday, April 27, 2009

3 Nissan (Acharei Mos-Kedoshim)

Why does Hashem tell Moshe (Vayikra 16,2) "Daber el Aharon achicha..." (Tell Aharon your brother...)? Moshe knows that his brother is Aharon, Hashem doesn't need to tell him. The passuk could have just said "tell Aharon"!

Sunday, April 26, 2009

2 Iyar (Acharei Mos-Kedoshim)

Rashi on Vayikra 19,3 says that Kibbud av v'aim is written together with Shabbos to teach us that honoring parents isn't doche shabbos and its the same with everything else. Typically the way of the Torah is to teach us the biggest Chiddush and I know for sure the smaller chiddush. If so, why does the torah write it with Shabbos to teach us everything, it should have written Kibbud av v'aim with a regular lav that only gets malkos as a punishment and I'd know for sure everything else. Why write it with such a chamor lav like shabbos to teach us everything?

30 Nissan (Tazriah-Metzorah)

Why does Parshas Tazria start with "Isha ki sazria viyalda zachar" (when a woman becomes pregnant and gives birth to a male), if she gave birth to a male of course she became pregnant first?

Friday, April 24, 2009

29 Nissan (Tazriah-Metzorah)

According to the opinions that Sheva Berachos is a Dirabanan how can we learn from our parsha in Moed Katan 7b according to both opinions that we don't examine the Tzaras until after Sheva Berachos? Sheva Berachos doesn't exist in the Torah according to them!

Thursday, April 23, 2009

28 Nissan (Tazriah-Metzorah)

In Vayikra 14,54-57 why do we say "Zos hatorah lichol negah hatzaras... Zos toras hatzaras" (this is the law for every Tzaras... This is the law of Tzaras." There's no reason to say it twice!

Tuesday, April 21, 2009

27 Nissan (Sefiras Ha'omer)

Why were R' Akiva's students killed for merely not giving Kavod to each other? When did that become something that's Mechuyav Misah?

26 Nissan (Tazriah-Metzorah)

The first Rashi in Tazriah says that we are starting discussing the Torah of people now that we finished with the Torah about animals we are going to start with the Torah of people. I understand why we start with childbirth halachos then, but why do we get into the laws of Tzara'as right afterwards?

Sunday, April 19, 2009

25 Nissan (Tazriah-Metzorah)

Why does it say (Vayikra 13,3) "Vira'ah hakohen es hanegah bior habasar... Vira'ahu hakohen vitimei osoh" (and the kohen should look at the tzara'as on the skin of his flesh... The kohen should look at it and declare it tamei.)? We already said the kohen should look at it in the beginning of the passuk!

23 Nissan (Shemini)

Why does it say by all of the treif animals with one siman (either it chews its cud or it has split hooves) in Vayikra 11,4-7, that you can't eat it because... and then list the siman it does have then the siman it doesn't have? Why doesn't it just say that you can't eat it because it doesn't have the siman it doesn't have? There's no reason to say the siman it does have!

20 Nissan (Pesach)

In Berachos 9a,b Rav Yannai says that the reason it says in Shemos 11,2 "daber NA... viyishalu ish maies ra'aihu... Klei chesef uklei zahav" (speak please... and let each man borrow from his friend... silver and gold vessels) is because na means please and Hashem was telling Moshe "Please. Go tell Klal Yisrael please borrow gold and silver vessels because that way Avraham won't be able to say 'you kept(Beraishis 15,13) 'they will serve them and oppress them' but not 'afterwards they will leave with tremendous wealth' '!" Why is the problem that Avraham is going to complain, the problem should be that Hashem has to do it since he promised to?

19 Nissan (Pesach)

I had some technical problems both with my phone and with laiziness so I didn't post the last few days kashas here. (They did make it to the text so if you subscribed to that you would have gotten it). I'll try to catch up today.

How can Hashem tell the Jews (Shemos 3,22) ""Visha'ala isha mishchenta umigaras beisa klei chesef uklei zahav usmalos visamtem al beneichem vial benosechem..." (and each woman should borrow from her neighbor and from the one who lives in her house silver and golden vessels and clothing and put them on your sons and daughters...)? They were never going to return them. You can't call that borrowing, it's taking!

Monday, April 13, 2009

18 Nissan (Pesach)

Chazal tell us that Bnei Yisrael merited redemption from Egypt in merit of three things. (1)They didn't speak Egyptian (2) They didn't wear Egyptian clothing (3) They didn't use Egyptian names. If so why in Shemos 3,22 does it say that "Visha'ala... Klei chesef uklei zahav usmalos visamtem al beneichem vial benosechem vinatzaltem es Mitzraim" (and borrow...silver and gold vessels and clothing and put them on your sons and daughters and empty Egypt). Why would Hashem tell them to borrow the Egyptian clothing? They shouldn't start wearing Egyptian clothes now!

Wednesday, April 8, 2009

14 Nissan (Pesach)

Why doe the Haggada single out "Ain maftirim achar hapesach afikomen" we don't eat after the pesach afikomen as the one halacha listed that we tell the Chacham in response to his question? Seemingly it has no relevence to his question at all and is no more of an important halacha than any of the other ones!

Tuesday, April 7, 2009

13 Nissan (Pesach)

The passuk the Haggada uses to show "Vayareiu osunu hamitzrim" (and the Egyptians did bad to us) is "Hava nischakma lo, pen yirbeh vihaya ki sikrena milchama vinosaph gam hu al soneinu vinilcham banu viala min ha'aretz" (Let's deal cleverly with them, lest they multiply, and it will be when we have a war and they will join to our enemies and they will fight us and drive us up from the land). Why is that the passuk used to prove that they did bad to us? Wouldn't a passuk related to the evil decrees they actually made or related to the terrible things they did to us be a better passuk to quote?

Monday, April 6, 2009

12 Nissan (Pesach)

In the Ma Nishtana the second question is "Shebichol Haleilos unu ochlim shiar yerakos haleila hazeh marror" (on all other nights we eat other vegetables tonight- marror). Why does the child see anything strange about the choice of vegetables? We have karpas and marror so it should just look like we're having a random selection of vegetables! Also according to the Haggadas that have the girsah of Kulo marror, what does it mean we only have marror? We have whatever vegetable we use for Karpas!

Sunday, April 5, 2009

11 Nissan (Pesach)

The Torah asks the Questions of the Chacham and the Rasha. The Chacham's question is asked in Devarim 6,20 "Ki yishalcha bincha machar leimor ma ha'aidus vihachukim vihamishpatim..." (When your son asks you tomorrow saying what are the testimonies and decrees and laws...). And the Rasha's question is in Shemos 12,26 "Vihaya ki yomru alaichem bineichem ma ha'avodah hazos lachem". (And it will be when your sons say to you what is this service to you?). The problem is why doesn't the haggada use the answer that the Torah gives of: for the Chacham: "Viamarta livincha Avadim hayinu liparoh... Vayiten Hashem osos umophsim... Viosanu hotzi... Vayitzavenu Hashem la'asos.... Utzdakkah tihyeh lanu..." (And you will say to your son we were servants to Pharaoh... And Hashem put signs and wonders... And we were taken out... And Hashem commanded us to do... And it will be a merit to us...) And for the Rasha: "Viamatem zevach pesach hu lahashem asher pasach... Ve'es bateinu hitzil" (And you will say it is a Pesach offering to Hashem that he passed over... And our households he saved). There's no reason seemingly for the Ba'al Haggada to not use the Torah's answer so why not use it. We're not going to Chas Veshalom say he's smarter than the Torah so how can the Haggada give a different answer?

Friday, April 3, 2009

9 Nissan (Pesach)

The Haggada says "Baruch Shomer Havtachaso Liyisrael..." (blessed is He who keeps his promise to the jews [to redeem them]...). Why are we praising Hashem for keeping his promise? Of course Hashem has to keep his promise, doing that doesn't deserve praise!

9 Nissan (Pesach)

The Haggada proves "Vayotzienu Hashem Mimitzraim- Lo Al Yedei Malach...Elah Hakadosh Baruch Hu Bichvodo Uvatzmo" (And Hashem took us out of Mitzraim- not through an angel...Rather it was Hashem in all his glory himself) from (Shemos 12,12)"Viavarti... Vihikeisi Kol Bechor.... Uvchol Elohei Mitzraim E'eseh Shfatim Ani Hashem" (And I will pass... And I will hit every first born... And in all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment. I am Hashem). All that we see from there is that it was Hashem himself that killed the Egyptian first borns and destroyed the idols. That's not a proof that it was Hashem that took us out of Egypt so why do we try to prove from there?

Wednesday, April 1, 2009

6 Nissan (Pesach)

Why does it say in Davar Achar "alu eser makkos shehavi hakadosh Baruch hu al hamitzrim bimitzraim" (these are the 10 makkos that Hashem brought on the Egyptians in Egypt)? Of course the Egyptians are in Egypt! If its excluding the ones that aren't currently in Egypt than why shouldn't the ones that just left be punished for what they did? Also, if that's true, why didn't the other Egyptians just leave for a little bit until the makkos are done (we find the bechorim got into a major war with their fathers right before makkas bechoros that caused even more deaths than the makkah itself. Why not just take a quick vacation in Eretz Kena'an or something)?

Tuesday, March 31, 2009

5 Nissan (Pesach)

Why do we say in Avadim Hayinu "liparoh bimitraim"(to Pharaoh in Egypt)? Why not just say to Pharaoh and we would know that it was in Egypt? Also why say it twice, even if we needed it the first time, we don't need to say again two lines later that Pharaoh was in Egypt?

Monday, March 30, 2009

5 Nissan (Pesach)

Why is the answer to the Rasha's question to smash him in the teeth and tell him you would have no part in the redemtion? All that that would do is completely make sure that he will never ever do Teshuva (according to the opinions that it's literal). What we should do is sit down with him and slowly and lovingly show him he's wrong. We've seen time and time again that that works. Hitting someone in the face has never been Mekarev anyone!

Sunday, March 29, 2009

4 Nissan (Pesachim)

Why is the time that the hungry are invited to the seder at the begining of maggid? If you're trying to show that you're inviting them for the seder than why not invite them at the begining of the seder by kaddesh? If you're trying to invite them for the meal than the time to say "kol dichphin... (All who are hungry....) should be by motzi matza or by the meal?

Friday, March 27, 2009

2 Nissan (Vayikra)

The Ba'al Haturim on Vayikra 1,1 says that the reason the aleph of Vayikra is written small is because Moshe wanted it to say Vayikar (without the aleph) implying that it was more of a chance, (like what it says by Bilam), because of his humility. Hashem wanted it to say Vayikra, to show Hashem went out of his way to come to Moshe out of his great love of him,so they wrote the aleph small. Why is this the only time Moshe has a problem? It says Vayikra in Shemos 3:4 (Vayikra Eilov) and Shemos 19:20 (Vayikra Hashem Limoshe) and its written normally with a regular aleph, why?

Thursday, March 26, 2009

1 Nissan (Rosh Chodesh Nissan)

The first Rashi on Chumash says that really the Torah should have started with Shemos 12- "Hachodesh Hazeh Lachem Rosh Chadashim" (this month should be for you the first month[referring to Rosh Chodesh Nissan]). The reason it doesn't is because this way we can see why we have Eretz Yisrael. Why would we have started from there, there are so many things that we learn from the Torah until there?

Wednesday, March 25, 2009

28 Adar (pesach)

Why do we say "Kul Dichphin Yaysei Viyeichul...." (All who are hungry should come and eat...) from "Ha Lachma Anyah" in the privacy of our homes? The hungry will never have the slightest idea that we are inviting them. Why don't we say it in shul or some other public area? As generous as it is to invite people, its only useful if they find out!

Tuesday, March 24, 2009

28 Adar (Vayikra)

Rashi on 4,17 says the reason just says "paroches" (curtain) not "paroches hakodesh" (holy paroches) like it does in passuk 6 is because over here we're dealing with when the entire community sinned. And its a mashal to a king who if all his subjects rebel he's not really a ruler but if only some of them rebel he's still a ruler. So too by the beis hamikdash, if everyone rebels than Hashem's ruler ship on the world goes down and the Beis Hamikdash isn't called holy anymore, but when just the kohen gadol sins it is still holy. Why are we calling it that everyone rebels? The passuk is dealing with when Beis Din makes a mistake and says that something assur is actually fine. If so, that's not a rebellion. Everyone still feels subservient to Hashem so his malchus is still intact. If so the beis hamikdash should remain in its original kedusha, and we should still be able to call the paroches the "paroches hakodesh"?

Monday, March 23, 2009

27 Adar (pesach)

Yesterday we quoted the gemarah in Pesachim 108a that says that there is an aurgument if according to Rav Nachman you lean by the first two cups or the last two. In the opinion that you lean only by the last two because we're only free by the last two but by the first two we're still slaves (the other opinion), how does that make sense? By the second cup we've already finished maggid so we are free. Why are we calling ourselves still slaves by the second cup?

Sunday, March 22, 2009

26 Adar (Pesach)

On Pesachim 108a there is an argument which two cups Rav Nachman holds you have to lean by, the first two or the last two. If it's the first two the reason would be because that's when the freedom is happening. However by the last two, what happened, happened. What does that mean? You should for sure have to lean by the last two cups because then you're actually free? But even more, why on earth would you lean by the first cup? You're not free!

Friday, March 20, 2009

24 Adar (Vayakel-Pekudei)

In Shemos 35,30 it says "Reuh karah Hashem beshem Betzalel ben Uri ben Chur lemateh Yehuda" (see that Hashem has. The Midrash Tanchumah (Vayakhel 4) says that Betzalel was promoted since he was descended from Chur who gave up his life for Hashem by the Eigel Hazahav trying to stop them from making it. Its a mashal to a king who has an officer who gets killed for protecting the king. The king then says "I swear, I will promote your descendants". Why wait until Betzalel? Should have given Uri the ability instead of his son, Betzalel! There's no reason to wait until Chur's grandson!

Thursday, March 19, 2009

23 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The stone representing shevet Binyamin is called the Yeshpe and Rabbeinu Bachyeh explains (Shemos 28,15) the reason is because "yesh pe" (he had a mouth), that he didn't tell Yaakov that Yosef was sold. But can't focus on how he had a mouth than use that to represent the way he didn't speak! We should say "EINpe" to represent how he acted as if he didn't have a mouth or something like that showing that he didn't speak. Yeshpe sounds like he did speak!

Wednesday, March 18, 2009

22 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

In the beginning of Pekudei (38,21) it says the word mishkan twice in a row and Rashi explains that the reason its repeated is because it's hinting to the two beis hamikdashes that will be taken as a mashkon (collateral) because of our sins. But a collateral by definition means that he is taking something from the other person. Here Hashem is taking his house, you can't call that a collateral!?

Tuesday, March 17, 2009

21 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The Rashba"m on Pesachim 112a says that we learn one must knock before entering from the fact that the Kohen Gadol wore bells on the Ephod, which made it clear where he was (yes, it's the same Rashba"m from yesterday's question). If the reason that he wore them is because it's manners to let it be known that he's entering than the other Kohanim should also have to wear bells?

Monday, March 16, 2009

20 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The Rashba"m on Pesachim 112a says that we see that a person should knock before going into their own house from the fact that the Kohen Gadol had bells on the Ephod always informing where he was ("vinishma kolo beva'o el hakodesh"/ its sound should be heard when he goes into the kodesh). But the Kohen Gadol was entering Hashem's house. How can we learn from there that we must knock before we go into our own house?

Sunday, March 15, 2009

19 Adar (vayakhel-pikudei)

Meseches Shabbos 97b learns from the words "Aleh" in Shemos 35,1 that says "Aleh Hadevarim asher tziva Hashem La'asos Osam" (these are the things that Hashem commanded that you must do them) that there are 39 melachos because aleh is gematriah 36 the Hei adds 1 and Devarim (things) is plural so adds two. That equals 39. How can we learn that there are 39 things we CAN'T do from a passuk telling us these are the things you MUST do?

Friday, March 13, 2009

17 Adar (ki sisa)

The shkalim are a kaparah for the golden calf. How does it make sense that for such tremendously wealthy people (they just got the vast majority of Egypt's money) that they could just give a little money and be forgiven? First of all, this paltry sum meant nothing to them. Also you can't just buy Hashem, this isn't Christianity! You have to do a real teshuvah! Why should their giving of the half shekel be enough?

Thursday, March 12, 2009

16 Adar (ki sisa)

In 32,1 why does it say ki ze moshe (for this moshe) just say ki moshe? The passuk would read even better without it so there's no reason to put it in.

Wednesday, March 11, 2009

15 Adar (shushan purim)

In Esther 8,17 why was there simcha visasson layhudim mishte viyom tom (gladnes and joy for the jews, feast and holiday) and virabim meiamei ha'aretz misyahadim ki nafal pachad hayhudim aleyhem (and many of the non jews pretended to be jews because the fear of the jews was on them). The gentiles still had the right to attack the jews and the Jews only had the right to attack those that were attacking them (8,11) the jews were outnumbered and the original decree that anyone can attack them was still in place so really the jews should have been up for a major war. There's no reason to celebrate if you are still about to fight a major war! Also why was there such fright of the jews on the goyim?

14 adar (purim's kasha)

If it says in Rirkei Avos 6,6 that we learn out that someone who says something in the name of the originator brings geulah to the world as we see that Esther said Mordechai told her about bigsan and seresh's plot to kill Achashverosh (Esther 2,22), why does dailykasha never quote? What, they don't want to bring geulah!? At least half of their kashas are from Rav Yochanan Zweig from Talmudic University, and half of the rest are from bochurim there so why not tell everyone?

Monday, March 9, 2009

13 Adar (purim)

Why does Haman wait until Mordechai doesn't bow down to him to start trying to destroy all the jews? Haman is an Amaleiki and therefore a sworn enemy of the Jews. There's no reason to wait. He could have said the same Lashon Harah about the Jews immediately when he became appointed and had the decree signed by Achashverosh then!

Sunday, March 8, 2009

12 Adar (purim)

Yoma 29a-Esther is compared to the dawn because dawn is end of night so too Esther is the end of nissim. That means that the time of miracles is compared to night and the time of no miracles is like the dawn? Why is the time of miracles night, that should be the light in the mashal and Esther should be the nightfall? Light should seemingly be the open giluy of Hashem!

12 Adar (purim)

Why do we only find that (Esther 1,9) Vashti made her own party by the second party(for Shushan)? We don't see anything about her making her own party the first time (for everybody)! What's the difference?

Friday, March 6, 2009

10 Adar (purim)

Why did Mordechai have to incite Haman by not bowing down to him? Why couldn't he just arrange to lose his job of sitting at the palace gates or retire from it or move away or pretend to be sick or something? He can't make a point of not bowing down and thereby jeopardize his life and the lives of his fellow Jews! Also the Gemara (Megilla 6b) says "I'm Ra'isah Rasha Shehasha'ah Misachekes lo al tisgareh bo" ( it's assur to incite a rasha that is enjoying good fortune), so how could he have incited Haman? Haman was clearly enjoying good fortune!

Thursday, March 5, 2009

9 Adar (purim)

The Targum on Esther 6,10 says that when Haman was told by Achashverosh to give honor to Mordechai he asked Achashverosh to just kill him (haman) and not decree that he has to honor Mordechai. If he was willing to be killed, why not just refuse to bring Mordechai and be killed for being a morid bemalchus or commit suicide? (Also Mordehai is a dead man. Just honor him now and in a few months he'll be dead! Why would he rather die now?)

Wednesday, March 4, 2009

8 Adar (purim)

Esther 1,1 says"Sheva v'esrim umeah medina"(127 province). Why doesn't it say medinos (provinces) in plural form?

8 Adar (Purim)

Esther 3,1 says "(1)Gidal Hamelech Achashverosh Es Haman...(2Vayenaseahu, (3)Vayasem Es Kiso me'al kol Hasarim..." Why all 3 forms of saying Haman was promoted? What's each one adding? Also why do we refer to it as putting his chair.... We should say put him over all the officers, not his chair!

8 Adar (purim)

Why does the megilla only discuss the decor of the second party?Should discuss the decor of both the same way it discusses the purpose of and who was invited to both!
Why did Achashverosh only use the Klei Beis Hamikdash by the second party? We see by the first party he wore the Bigdei Kohen Gadol (Megilla 12a) so apparently even by the first party he was trying to be mevazeh the Beis Hamikdash and the Jewish religion!

8 adar (purim)

Megillas Esther starts with "Vayehi Bemai Achashverosh" (It was in the days of Achashverosh) So why does it need to say in the next passuk "Bayamim Hahaim" (in those days)? I know that it was during that time because it just said that!

8 Adar

Megila 12b-Megillas Esther (1,10) says "Bayom Hashvi'i K'tov Lev Hamelech Byayin" means that ALL the goyim at the party, which was on Shabbos, were drunk, discussing which country has the prettiest girls. However when Jews get drunk they talk Divrei Torah and praise Hashem. But the passuk says HAMELECH (not Ha'ir Shushan or Ha'am or something similar that would imply that the focus is on the King) but yet, the Gemarah makes it sound like the difference between the Jews and the Non Jews is the focus?

8 adar

Megilla 12b- Vashti was punished Mida Kneged Mida. She made the Jewish girls work undressed on Shabbos, so too, she was told to come undressed to the party on Shabbos. Why is this Mida Kneged Mida? She never ended up going undressed to the party! In addition the Gemara says that really Vashti wouldn't have minded were it not for the fact that she grew a tail or got Tzara'as. If so, you can't punish someone with something that they don't even mind, so its really completely not Mida K'negid Mida? If you don't mind something, it's not a punishment just because you did it to someone who does? In addition, what is the reason she had to be punished on Shabbos? For her Shabbos is the same as any other day, so again its not Mida K'negid Mida!