5 Nissan (Pesach)

Why do we say in Avadim Hayinu "liparoh bimitraim"(to Pharaoh in Egypt)? Why not just say to Pharaoh and we would know that it was in Egypt? Also why say it twice, even if we needed it the first time, we don't need to say again two lines later that Pharaoh was in Egypt?

5 Nissan (Pesach)

Why is the answer to the Rasha's question to smash him in the teeth and tell him you would have no part in the redemtion? All that that would do is completely make sure that he will never ever do Teshuva (according to the opinions that it's literal). What we should do is sit down with him and slowly and lovingly show him he's wrong. We've seen time and time again that that works. Hitting someone in the face has never been Mekarev anyone!

4 Nissan (Pesachim)

Why is the time that the hungry are invited to the seder at the begining of maggid? If you're trying to show that you're inviting them for the seder than why not invite them at the begining of the seder by kaddesh? If you're trying to invite them for the meal than the time to say "kol dichphin... (All who are hungry....) should be by motzi matza or by the meal?

2 Nissan (Vayikra)

The Ba'al Haturim on Vayikra 1,1 says that the reason the aleph of Vayikra is written small is because Moshe wanted it to say Vayikar (without the aleph) implying that it was more of a chance, (like what it says by Bilam), because of his humility. Hashem wanted it to say Vayikra, to show Hashem went out of his way to come to Moshe out of his great love of him,so they wrote the aleph small. Why is this the only time Moshe has a problem? It says Vayikra in Shemos 3:4 (Vayikra Eilov) and Shemos 19:20 (Vayikra Hashem Limoshe) and its written normally with a regular aleph, why?

1 Nissan (Rosh Chodesh Nissan)

The first Rashi on Chumash says that really the Torah should have started with Shemos 12- "Hachodesh Hazeh Lachem Rosh Chadashim" (this month should be for you the first month[referring to Rosh Chodesh Nissan]). The reason it doesn't is because this way we can see why we have Eretz Yisrael. Why would we have started from there, there are so many things that we learn from the Torah until there?

28 Adar (pesach)

Why do we say "Kul Dichphin Yaysei Viyeichul...." (All who are hungry should come and eat...) from "Ha Lachma Anyah" in the privacy of our homes? The hungry will never have the slightest idea that we are inviting them. Why don't we say it in shul or some other public area? As generous as it is to invite people, its only useful if they find out!

28 Adar (Vayikra)

Rashi on 4,17 says the reason just says "paroches" (curtain) not "paroches hakodesh" (holy paroches) like it does in passuk 6 is because over here we're dealing with when the entire community sinned. And its a mashal to a king who if all his subjects rebel he's not really a ruler but if only some of them rebel he's still a ruler. So too by the beis hamikdash, if everyone rebels than Hashem's ruler ship on the world goes down and the Beis Hamikdash isn't called holy anymore, but when just the kohen gadol sins it is still holy. Why are we calling it that everyone rebels? The passuk is dealing with when Beis Din makes a mistake and says that something assur is actually fine. If so, that's not a rebellion. Everyone still feels subservient to Hashem so his malchus is still intact. If so the beis hamikdash should remain in its original kedusha, and we should still be able to call the paroches the "paroches hakodesh"?

27 Adar (pesach)

Yesterday we quoted the gemarah in Pesachim 108a that says that there is an aurgument if according to Rav Nachman you lean by the first two cups or the last two. In the opinion that you lean only by the last two because we're only free by the last two but by the first two we're still slaves (the other opinion), how does that make sense? By the second cup we've already finished maggid so we are free. Why are we calling ourselves still slaves by the second cup?

26 Adar (Pesach)

On Pesachim 108a there is an argument which two cups Rav Nachman holds you have to lean by, the first two or the last two. If it's the first two the reason would be because that's when the freedom is happening. However by the last two, what happened, happened. What does that mean? You should for sure have to lean by the last two cups because then you're actually free? But even more, why on earth would you lean by the first cup? You're not free!

24 Adar (Vayakel-Pekudei)

In Shemos 35,30 it says "Reuh karah Hashem beshem Betzalel ben Uri ben Chur lemateh Yehuda" (see that Hashem has. The Midrash Tanchumah (Vayakhel 4) says that Betzalel was promoted since he was descended from Chur who gave up his life for Hashem by the Eigel Hazahav trying to stop them from making it. Its a mashal to a king who has an officer who gets killed for protecting the king. The king then says "I swear, I will promote your descendants". Why wait until Betzalel? Should have given Uri the ability instead of his son, Betzalel! There's no reason to wait until Chur's grandson!

23 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The stone representing shevet Binyamin is called the Yeshpe and Rabbeinu Bachyeh explains (Shemos 28,15) the reason is because "yesh pe" (he had a mouth), that he didn't tell Yaakov that Yosef was sold. But can't focus on how he had a mouth than use that to represent the way he didn't speak! We should say "EINpe" to represent how he acted as if he didn't have a mouth or something like that showing that he didn't speak. Yeshpe sounds like he did speak!

22 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

In the beginning of Pekudei (38,21) it says the word mishkan twice in a row and Rashi explains that the reason its repeated is because it's hinting to the two beis hamikdashes that will be taken as a mashkon (collateral) because of our sins. But a collateral by definition means that he is taking something from the other person. Here Hashem is taking his house, you can't call that a collateral!?

21 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The Rashba"m on Pesachim 112a says that we learn one must knock before entering from the fact that the Kohen Gadol wore bells on the Ephod, which made it clear where he was (yes, it's the same Rashba"m from yesterday's question). If the reason that he wore them is because it's manners to let it be known that he's entering than the other Kohanim should also have to wear bells?

20 Adar (Vayakhel-Pekudei)

The Rashba"m on Pesachim 112a says that we see that a person should knock before going into their own house from the fact that the Kohen Gadol had bells on the Ephod always informing where he was ("vinishma kolo beva'o el hakodesh"/ its sound should be heard when he goes into the kodesh). But the Kohen Gadol was entering Hashem's house. How can we learn from there that we must knock before we go into our own house?

19 Adar (vayakhel-pikudei)

Meseches Shabbos 97b learns from the words "Aleh" in Shemos 35,1 that says "Aleh Hadevarim asher tziva Hashem La'asos Osam" (these are the things that Hashem commanded that you must do them) that there are 39 melachos because aleh is gematriah 36 the Hei adds 1 and Devarim (things) is plural so adds two. That equals 39. How can we learn that there are 39 things we CAN'T do from a passuk telling us these are the things you MUST do?

17 Adar (ki sisa)

The shkalim are a kaparah for the golden calf. How does it make sense that for such tremendously wealthy people (they just got the vast majority of Egypt's money) that they could just give a little money and be forgiven? First of all, this paltry sum meant nothing to them. Also you can't just buy Hashem, this isn't Christianity! You have to do a real teshuvah! Why should their giving of the half shekel be enough?

16 Adar (ki sisa)

In 32,1 why does it say ki ze moshe (for this moshe) just say ki moshe? The passuk would read even better without it so there's no reason to put it in.

15 Adar (shushan purim)

In Esther 8,17 why was there simcha visasson layhudim mishte viyom tom (gladnes and joy for the jews, feast and holiday) and virabim meiamei ha'aretz misyahadim ki nafal pachad hayhudim aleyhem (and many of the non jews pretended to be jews because the fear of the jews was on them). The gentiles still had the right to attack the jews and the Jews only had the right to attack those that were attacking them (8,11) the jews were outnumbered and the original decree that anyone can attack them was still in place so really the jews should have been up for a major war. There's no reason to celebrate if you are still about to fight a major war! Also why was there such fright of the jews on the goyim?

14 adar (purim's kasha)

If it says in Rirkei Avos 6,6 that we learn out that someone who says something in the name of the originator brings geulah to the world as we see that Esther said Mordechai told her about bigsan and seresh's plot to kill Achashverosh (Esther 2,22), why does dailykasha never quote? What, they don't want to bring geulah!? At least half of their kashas are from Rav Yochanan Zweig from Talmudic University, and half of the rest are from bochurim there so why not tell everyone?

13 Adar (purim)

Why does Haman wait until Mordechai doesn't bow down to him to start trying to destroy all the jews? Haman is an Amaleiki and therefore a sworn enemy of the Jews. There's no reason to wait. He could have said the same Lashon Harah about the Jews immediately when he became appointed and had the decree signed by Achashverosh then!

12 Adar (purim)

Yoma 29a-Esther is compared to the dawn because dawn is end of night so too Esther is the end of nissim. That means that the time of miracles is compared to night and the time of no miracles is like the dawn? Why is the time of miracles night, that should be the light in the mashal and Esther should be the nightfall? Light should seemingly be the open giluy of Hashem!

12 Adar (purim)

Why do we only find that (Esther 1,9) Vashti made her own party by the second party(for Shushan)? We don't see anything about her making her own party the first time (for everybody)! What's the difference?

10 Adar (purim)

Why did Mordechai have to incite Haman by not bowing down to him? Why couldn't he just arrange to lose his job of sitting at the palace gates or retire from it or move away or pretend to be sick or something? He can't make a point of not bowing down and thereby jeopardize his life and the lives of his fellow Jews! Also the Gemara (Megilla 6b) says "I'm Ra'isah Rasha Shehasha'ah Misachekes lo al tisgareh bo" ( it's assur to incite a rasha that is enjoying good fortune), so how could he have incited Haman? Haman was clearly enjoying good fortune!

9 Adar (purim)

The Targum on Esther 6,10 says that when Haman was told by Achashverosh to give honor to Mordechai he asked Achashverosh to just kill him (haman) and not decree that he has to honor Mordechai. If he was willing to be killed, why not just refuse to bring Mordechai and be killed for being a morid bemalchus or commit suicide? (Also Mordehai is a dead man. Just honor him now and in a few months he'll be dead! Why would he rather die now?)

8 Adar (purim)

Esther 1,1 says"Sheva v'esrim umeah medina"(127 province). Why doesn't it say medinos (provinces) in plural form?

8 Adar (Purim)

Esther 3,1 says "(1)Gidal Hamelech Achashverosh Es Haman...(2Vayenaseahu, (3)Vayasem Es Kiso me'al kol Hasarim..." Why all 3 forms of saying Haman was promoted? What's each one adding? Also why do we refer to it as putting his chair.... We should say put him over all the officers, not his chair!

8 Adar (purim)

Why does the megilla only discuss the decor of the second party?Should discuss the decor of both the same way it discusses the purpose of and who was invited to both!
Why did Achashverosh only use the Klei Beis Hamikdash by the second party? We see by the first party he wore the Bigdei Kohen Gadol (Megilla 12a) so apparently even by the first party he was trying to be mevazeh the Beis Hamikdash and the Jewish religion!

8 adar (purim)

Megillas Esther starts with "Vayehi Bemai Achashverosh" (It was in the days of Achashverosh) So why does it need to say in the next passuk "Bayamim Hahaim" (in those days)? I know that it was during that time because it just said that!

8 Adar

Megila 12b-Megillas Esther (1,10) says "Bayom Hashvi'i K'tov Lev Hamelech Byayin" means that ALL the goyim at the party, which was on Shabbos, were drunk, discussing which country has the prettiest girls. However when Jews get drunk they talk Divrei Torah and praise Hashem. But the passuk says HAMELECH (not Ha'ir Shushan or Ha'am or something similar that would imply that the focus is on the King) but yet, the Gemarah makes it sound like the difference between the Jews and the Non Jews is the focus?

8 adar

Megilla 12b- Vashti was punished Mida Kneged Mida. She made the Jewish girls work undressed on Shabbos, so too, she was told to come undressed to the party on Shabbos. Why is this Mida Kneged Mida? She never ended up going undressed to the party! In addition the Gemara says that really Vashti wouldn't have minded were it not for the fact that she grew a tail or got Tzara'as. If so, you can't punish someone with something that they don't even mind, so its really completely not Mida K'negid Mida? If you don't mind something, it's not a punishment just because you did it to someone who does? In addition, what is the reason she had to be punished on Shabbos? For her Shabbos is the same as any other day, so again its not Mida K'negid Mida!