Wednesday, May 6, 2009

13 Iyar (Emor)

Once Vayikra 21,13 says "Vihu Isha bivsulehah yikach" (and he should marry a woman in her virginity) and the first half of verse 14 excluded everyone else by writing "Almana ugrusha vachalah zona es aileh lo yikach" (a widow and a divorcee and a chalalah and a harlot, these he shouldn't take),why do we need verse 14 to continue with "Ki im besulah mayamav yikach isha" (but a virgin from his nation he should take as a wife)? Don't we already know quite clearly that he has to marry a besulah from the last passuk and a half? Why are we repeating it again?

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