Pesach

What does the Haggada mean "Pharaoh only decreed to kill the boys, but Lavan tried to uproot everyone"? The decree to kill all the boys was only for the year that Moshe was born (Sotah12b)! All of Pharaoh's other evil decrees designed to decrease Jewish population were aimed at both men and women!

Pesach

Why does the Haggada use Devarim 10,22 to show that the Jews came to Egypt "few in number"? Why doesn't it use Beraishis 46,27 where the Jews actually came to Egypt few in number? There's no reason to go all the way to Devarim for that when the Haggada can use the actual passuk!

Pesach

What does the Haggada mean "The reason for Matza is because the dough of our fathers didn't even have time to rise before Hashem redeemed them as it says (Shemos 12,39) "They baked the dough which they brought out of Egypt into unleavened bread, for it had not been leavened, for they had been driven out of Egypt and couldn't delay...""? They couldn't have let the bread rise even if they did have time! Pesachim 96b- They weren't allowed to have Chametz that year just on the 15th of Nissan. Shemos 12,39 is talking about the 15th of Nissan! Therefore they couldn't have let the bread rise that day even if they had as much time as they wanted, so what's it mean the only reason they didn't let it rise is because they didn't have time?

(See also Pesachim 21b which makes it clear that the passuk that Pesachim 91b learns that they couldn't have chametz on the 15th from, isn't just talking about eating.)

Pesach

Why does it say in Davar Achar "alu eser makkos shehavi hakadosh Baruch hu al hamitzrim bimitzraim..." (these are the 10 makkos that Hashem brought on the Egyptians in Egypt...)? Of course the Egyptians are in Egypt! If its excluding the ones that aren't currently in Egypt than why shouldn't the ones that just left be punished for what they did? Also, if that's true, why didn't the other Egyptians just leave for a little bit until the makkos are done (we find the bechorim got into a major war with their fathers right before makkas bechoros that caused even more deaths than the makkah itself. Why not just take a quick vacation in Eretz Kena'an or something)?

Pesach

Why do we say in Avadim Hayinu that we were slaves "liparoh bimitzraim"(to Pharaoh in Egypt)? Why not just say we were slaves "to Pharaoh" and we would know that it was in Egypt? Also why do we say it twice? Even if we needed it the first time, we don't need to say again two lines later that Pharaoh was in Egypt?

Pesach

Why do we need to mention during the Seder the Machlokes whether or not one needs to mention Yitzias Mitzraim every night of the year? That has absolutely nothing to do with the Seder! Everybody agrees that by the seder you need to talk about Yitzias Mitzraim! This has nothing to do with that argument!

Pesach

Why do we say "Kul Dichphin Yaysei Viyeichul...." (All who are hungry should come and eat...) from "Ha Lachma Anyah" in the privacy of our homes? The hungry will never have the slightest idea that we are inviting them! Why don't we say it in shul or some other public area? As generous as it is to invite people, its only useful if they find out!